R>P>Q>T
V>S>P
so the lightest is T.
3×8=24=2xt ===> t=12hours
Lets assume total LCM(5,8) = 40units.
As, 5 men or 8 women do equal amount of work in a day,
1 Man does 8units/day and 1 Woman does 5units/day.
3M and 5W in 10 days do (3*8 + 5*5)*10 = 490units
To do 490 units in 14 days, number of Women required = 490/(14*5) = 7
Reading your question
a
BROTHER
15,25
36, 64, 81, 125, 169
125
length of the base=3 times height
b=3h;
h=b/3;
so, 1/2bh=24
1/2b(b/3)=24
(b^2)/6=24
b^2=144
b=12
group wise work is use full and effectively
3
I am working institute
Let’s assume the length of each train is ‘L’ and the speeds of the two trains are ‘V₁’ and ‘V₂’ respectively.
When the trains are moving in the opposite direction, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds. The total distance they need to cover is the sum of their lengths. Since they cross each other completely in 5 seconds, we can set up the following equation:
(V₁ + V₂) × 5 = 2L
When the trains are moving in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference between their individual speeds. The total distance they need to cover is the difference between their lengths. Since they cross each other completely in 15 seconds, we can set up the following equation:
(V₁ – V₂) × 15 = 2L
Now, let’s solve these equations to find the ratio of their speeds.
From the first equation, we have:
(V₁ + V₂) × 5 = 2L
V₁ + V₂ = (2L) / 5
From the second equation, we have:
(V₁ – V₂) × 15 = 2L
V₁ – V₂ = (2L) / 15
Let’s add these two equations together:
V₁ + V₂ + V₁ – V₂ = (2L) / 5 + (2L) / 15
2V₁ = (6L + 2L) / 15
2V₁ = (8L) / 15
V₁ = (4L) / 15
So, the speed of the first train is (4L) / 15.
Now, let’s substitute this value back into the first equation to find V₂:
(4L) / 15 + V₂ = (2L) / 5
V₂ = (2L) / 5 – (4L) / 15
V₂ = (6L – 4L) / 15
V₂ = (2L) / 15
Therefore, the speed of the second train is (2L) / 15.
The ratio of their speeds is given by:
(V₁ / V₂) = ((4L) / 15) / ((2L) / 15)
(V₁ / V₂) = 4L / 2L
(V₁ / V₂) = 2
So, the ratio of their speeds is 2:1.
Take 5 pills from jar 1, 4 pills from jar2,…. and 1 pill
from jar 5 and put altogether in the scale. the ideal
weight should be (1+2+3+4+5)x10= 150gms. for eg if the jar2
is contaminated then the weight will be 146 gms. so
depending on the amount of weight loss we can identify the
contaminated jar.
Let the number of one rupee coins in the bag be x.
Number of 50 paise coins in the bag is 93 – x.
Total value of coins
[100x + 50(93 – x)]paise = 5600 paise
=> x = 74
ANS = 74
the ratio is 4 : 3
so -> let’s suppose a case where multiplying both sides for the same number, the sum of the result will be 28 …
4 * 4 = 16
4 * 3 = 12
16 + 12 = 28
in 8 years they will be respectvely 24 and 20
which is the same as 6/5
Its Alphabet “e”