Statements :
No man is a donkey. Rajesh is a man.
Conclusions :
I. Rajesh is not a donkey.
II. All men are not Rajesh.
E
21 days
$150000
Diagonal of square=1.414* a, where a is side of square.
ans=1.414*20
ans=28.28
Daughter-in-law
20×20+22×22+24×24= 1460
Numbers is less then 30 because 30 square is 900 we have to take three consecutive number if we take numbers greater than 30 the sum of that numbers wil be greater than 1460.
Total inversement =20000
Arun and vinay =40% ,40%
Kamal =20%
8 month gain = 4005
Arun and vinay share of 6 months=1201.5
Kamal share of 6 month = 600.75
Now Arun left, then remaining 2 month’s profits =1001.25
In this case kamal have 33.3% and vinay have remaining percentage of 1001.25
33.3% of 1001.25 is 333.4
Now, total share of kamal is 600.75+333.4=934.16
No of men employed = N
No of days to finish the work = 9 days
No of men after increase = (N + 10)
No of days to finish the work = 6 days
Equating mandays
9N = (N+10)*6
9N — 6N = 60
3N = 60
N = 20
No of men employed = 20
All books can be arranged in 10! ways. A single pair of books can be taken as a unit and arranged among the 8 others in 9! ways. The pair of books can also be interchanged and therefore rearranged in 2! ways. Thus the probability of the pair always being together is (9!*2!)/10!
Yes, it is possible by using a HDMI cable
(x**2 – 6* x + 5) = (x-1)*(x-5)
(x**2 + 2 * x + 1) = (x + 1) * (x+1) = (x+1)**2
For what x is (x-1)*(x-5)/( (x+1)**2) a minimum?
One way to answer this question is by using calculus.
Take the derivative, and set to zero.
Since this is a fraction of polynomials, and a fraction is
zero only if it’s numerator is zero, we need calculate only
the numerator of the derivative and set it to zero.
The numerator of the
Derivative of (x-1)*(x-5)/( (x+1)**2) is
( (x-1) + (x-5) ) ( x+1)**2 – (x-1)(x-5)( 2 (x+1) )
= (2 x – 6) (x+1)**2 – (2) (x-1)(x-5) (x+1)
= 0
Divide through by 2 (x+1)
(x-3)(x+1) – (x-1)(x-5) = 0
(x**2 – 2 x – 3 ) – (x**2 – 6 x + 5) = 0
x**2 – x**2 – 2 x + 6 x – 3 – 5 = 0
4 x – 8 = 0
x = 2
Plugging in x = 2 into the original
(x**2-6*x+5)/(x**2+2*x+1)
gives us (2**2 – 6 * 2 + 5)/(2**2 + 2*2 + 1)
= (4 – 12 + 5) / (4 + 4 + 1) = -3/9 = -1/3
Least value is -1/3
obvious
e^(i*pi) + 1 = 0
17and+-12=5-48=-43
I agree with @TUMWINE PETER
20000
China
yes