Inspirisys Solutions Interview Questions, Process, and Tips

( a ) 28

(x**2 – 6* x + 5) = (x-1)*(x-5)
(x**2 + 2 * x + 1) = (x + 1) * (x+1) = (x+1)**2
For what x is (x-1)*(x-5)/( (x+1)**2) a minimum?
One way to answer this question is by using calculus.
Take the derivative, and set to zero.
Since this is a fraction of polynomials, and a fraction is
zero only if it’s numerator is zero, we need calculate only
the numerator of the derivative and set it to zero.
The numerator of the
Derivative of (x-1)*(x-5)/( (x+1)**2) is
( (x-1) + (x-5) ) ( x+1)**2 – (x-1)(x-5)( 2 (x+1) )
= (2 x – 6) (x+1)**2 – (2) (x-1)(x-5) (x+1)
= 0
Divide through by 2 (x+1)
(x-3)(x+1) – (x-1)(x-5) = 0
(x**2 – 2 x – 3 ) – (x**2 – 6 x + 5) = 0
x**2 – x**2 – 2 x + 6 x – 3 – 5 = 0
4 x – 8 = 0
x = 2
Plugging in x = 2 into the original
(x**2-6*x+5)/(x**2+2*x+1)
gives us (2**2 – 6 * 2 + 5)/(2**2 + 2*2 + 1)
= (4 – 12 + 5) / (4 + 4 + 1) = -3/9 = -1/3
Least value is -1/3

A = B + 2
B = 2 C
A + B + C = 27
C = 27 – A – B
B = 2*27 – 2A – 2B
2A = 2*27 – 3B
-2*A =-2*2 – 2*B
B = 10

1)Port
2)Trop

130

520 = 26 * 20 = 2 * 13 * 22 * 5 = 23 * 13 * 5

Required smallest number = 2 * 13 * 5 = 130
130 is the smallest number which should be multiplied with 520 to make it a perfect square.

1.5 km/hour

Let the number of one rupee coins in the bag be x.
Number of 50 paise coins in the bag is 93 – x.
Total value of coins
[100x + 50(93 – x)]paise = 5600 paise
=> x = 74

ANS = 74

Son in law

22

Here is the ans with explanation…..
Just divide 48 hours into 8 parts…
for flowchart its 1/4 so it is 2/8 = 12hours
For Coding it is 3/8 = 18 hours
the rest is again 3/8 = 18 hours for debugging..

Answer is 16
1,2,4,7,11,….
1+(1) =2
2+(2) =4
4+(3) =7
7+(4) =11
Therefore
11+(5) =16

125

79

12 month=>900Rs+Uniform
1month:75 => 9month:675
675-650=25 =>price of Uniform

108