(x**2 – 6* x + 5) = (x-1)*(x-5)
(x**2 + 2 * x + 1) = (x + 1) * (x+1) = (x+1)**2
For what x is (x-1)*(x-5)/( (x+1)**2) a minimum?
One way to answer this question is by using calculus.
Take the derivative, and set to zero.
Since this is a fraction of polynomials, and a fraction is
zero only if it’s numerator is zero, we need calculate only
the numerator of the derivative and set it to zero.
The numerator of the
Derivative of (x-1)*(x-5)/( (x+1)**2) is
( (x-1) + (x-5) ) ( x+1)**2 – (x-1)(x-5)( 2 (x+1) )
= (2 x – 6) (x+1)**2 – (2) (x-1)(x-5) (x+1)
= 0
Divide through by 2 (x+1)
(x-3)(x+1) – (x-1)(x-5) = 0
(x**2 – 2 x – 3 ) – (x**2 – 6 x + 5) = 0
x**2 – x**2 – 2 x + 6 x – 3 – 5 = 0
4 x – 8 = 0
x = 2
Plugging in x = 2 into the original
(x**2-6*x+5)/(x**2+2*x+1)
gives us (2**2 – 6 * 2 + 5)/(2**2 + 2*2 + 1)
= (4 – 12 + 5) / (4 + 4 + 1) = -3/9 = -1/3
Least value is -1/3
Dear friends i ofcourse confused like you when i come
across to solve this problem. Really friends its very
simple if you understand the question clearly. First thing
is what is mean by “as many as” means its called ‘idiom and
phrase’ in english and it means “the same number of”. now
read the question “how many pairs of letters in STAINLESS
which has same number of letters between them in the word
as they have in english alphabet”.
In the alphabetical order, A-Z can be numbered as 1-26.
In A(INL)E which is same as in the alphabetical order A
(BCD)E. In both the cases E is in the Fourth position. so
we got one pair.
And in ST, there are no letters between them in the word
stainless. In alphabetical orer from A-Z also there is no
letters between them..so we got the second pair…
In STAINLESS it has two pairs ST and AE
T is the last speaker.
300%
Solution:
As given, we have,
The cost of one pen = 36 Rs.
So, the cost of 15 pens = 36 × 15 = 540 Rs.
The cost of one book = 45 Rs.
So, the cost of 12 books = 45 × 12 = 540 Rs.
The cost of one pencil = 8 Rs.
So, the cost of 10 pencils = 8 × 10 = 80 Rs.
Now,
the cost of each eraser is 40 Rs. less than the combined costs of pen and pencil.
So,
Combined costs of pen and pencil = 36 + 8 = 44 Rs.
Cost of one eraser = 44 – 40 = 4 Rs.
So, the cost of 5 erasers = 4 × 5 = 20 Rs.
Hence,
The total amount spent is
Hence, the total amount spent is 1180 Rs.
zero – as one letter cant be wrong – atleast two are to be wrong
The work done by A in 8 days is = 8/ 12 = 2/3
Means A alone completes 2/3 part of work.
Remaining work which is (1–2/3) = 1/3 is completed by B in 8–2 = 6 days
So the complete work done by B in 6/(1/3) = 18 days.
B alone can complete the work in 18 days.
let,first num be x and second num be y
hcf =264
lcm=44
given equation
x/2=44 i.e x=88
product of 2 numbers is equal to lcm*hcf
88*y=44*264
y=132
17
X= pigeon
Y= hares
X+Y= 200
2x+4y=580
By solving y= 90
X=110
So Hares= 90
Average = (1+2+3+4+5+6+7+8+9)/3
= 45/3 = 15
Every side will contain sum of 15.
1st side contains 8 and 7.
2nd side contains 9 and 6.
3rd side contains 1,2,3,4 and 5.
125
Mohammad Gauri